Old 24-08-2008 | 10:39 PM
  #41  
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J1mbo
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From: Peterborough
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Originally Posted by Jim Galbally
whilst i cant remember exactly how it works (and i never actually finished A level physics... lol) i im pretty sure the conculsion you're coming to of 1+1=2 is not correct


loudness is directly proportional to amplitude
i.e L α a

Wheras intensity is prototional to the square of the amplitude
i.e I α a²

1) L= ka ------> therefore a=L/k
2) I = ka²
Substituting a in 1) into 2) we get
I = k (L/k)²
I = k * (L² / k²)
I = L² / k
So this means that intensity is inversly proportional the the square of the loudness i. e. I α 1/L²

α - proportionality sign
k- constant ( inserted to get rid of the proportionality sign)

Hope this helps!






copy+paste FTW!
i totally understand what you mean now so i/a *k (i/kl). . .

in 1 side out the other comes to mind

i just got an A in gcse maths aswell

thanks jim but no thanks

i will take your word on it